By 1914, the Ottomans had been the dominant force in the Middle East for many centuries; at their 16th Century peak threatening even to conquer mainland Europe. However, by 1914, the Empire was in decline, suffering from rebellions within and the threats of rival powers. On the cusp of World War One, was the end of Turkish rule in the region inevitable? And which factor was most significant in explaining the difficulties faced?
Dearest Students. Please use the comments board to support or oppose the title statement, as briefly developed in the paragraph above. Back yourself up with evidence (there's plenty to be found in your reading homework from last week) and offer opinions of your own, particularly if they oppose the stated views of your classmates!
Please note that the statement cunningly allows you to argue two separate contentions - that Ottoman decline was irreversible, and that it was due to internal tensions. I expect you to deal primarily with the latter - the matter of causation (although I'd be impressed if you attempted to challenge the former!). Best of luck - I hope you're excited as I am at the prospect... BY FRIDAY MORNING PLEASE!!
